Before you take the test it will help if you spend a day or two reading about the topics mentioned below. It is advisable to read and take notes from a reputable American encyclopedia.
It will also help you if you study the grammatical points mentioned below. Sometimes you will need to memorize irregular word forms. A reputable grammar book of American English should be used for this purpose.
SECTION 2: STRUCTURES & CONCEPTS
SECTION 3: TOPICS & VOCABULARY
Listening Comprehension
In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversation and talks in English. There are three parts to this section and each part has special directions. All questions should be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers. You will not be allowed to take notes or write in your test book when you take the actual TOEFL test. It will be helpful to work on this test the same way.
Part A
Directions: In Part A you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. Neither the conversations nor the questions will be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose the best answer. Finally, find the number of the question on your answer sheet and shade in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Listen to an example.
On the recording you will hear :
In your book you will read:
a) Forgetting how to drive causes accidents.
b) The boy forgot how to drive and had an accident
c) Driving appears to get worse when it snows.
d) The man needs to learn how to drive in the snow.
You learn from the conversation that people tend to drive worse in the snow.
The best answer to the question, “What does the man mean?” is: (c) “Driving appears to get worse when it snows.”
Therefore, the correct choice is (c)
1. a) He doesn’t like to read as much as the woman does.
b) The woman reads books about worms.
c) The required reading is mediocre.
d) The required reading is about worms.
2. a) The woman stole his watch.
b) The woman was in his yard.
c) The woman found his watch.
d) He hasn’t looked at the grass for a week.
3. a) The tire pressure is low.
b) The next gas station is far away.
c) She wants a lift.
d) The man is running too slowly.
4. a) A book
b) A jacket
c) Food
d) A mattress
5. a) The man is late because he was stuck in traffic.
b) The woman was early.
c) The man forgot about the party.
d) The woman went to the wrong state.
6. a) He doesn’t want any cookies.
b) It takes more than one egg to make cookies.
c) He would rather have eggs than cookies.
d) It’s time for breakfast.
7. a) She doesn’t know if she has any flour.
b) She doesn’t have the recipe.
c) She might have some flour.
d) She needs to buy some flour.
8. a) The man has stopped breathing.
b) Dinner is over.
c) The man is drowning.
d) The man is eating too fast.
9. a) The man
b) The man’s boss
c) The man’s sister
d) The woman’s sister
10. a) Unenthusiastic
b) Unpopular
c) Undaunted
d) Restless
11. a) They could order a different item from the menu.
b) They could walk off the ill effects of the food.
c) They could jog a few paces down the street.
d) They could try a different restaurant.
12. a) There was nobody around.
b) There was an emergency.
c) Nobody showed up for the meeting.
d) There is nobody at the main office.
13. a) She is angry with her.
b) She looks up to her.
c) She is frustrated with her.
d) She loves her.
14. a) A supermarket
b) A post office
c) A gift shop
d) A box store
15. a) The woman spilt something on the man’s shirt.
b) The woman is promoting a new dry cleaning shop.
c) The woman is trying to sell the man a shirt.
d) The man is giving the woman directions.
16. a) She takes an umbrella.
b) She takes more money.
c) She brushes her hair.
d) She puts on more clothes.
17. a) Everyone is dead tired.
b) There are no more seats available.
c) There are no more tickets available at this particular office.
d) They are out of business.
18. a) Watched a movie
b) Drove her cousin home
c) Went for a bicycle ride
d) Ate dinner
19. a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
20. a) In a few minutes
b) Last week
c) In a week
d) In two days
21. a) It is cracked
b) It is dirty
c) It was left open
d) It is broken
22. a) A newspaper
b) A book
c) A writing project
d) A drawing
23. a) A ride
b) A pair of sunglasses
c) To repair his glasses
d) Some fruit
24. a) The service
b) The emergency
c) His allergy
d) Food
25. a) Not attending classes
b) Skipping to school
c) Spending time with Mrs. Thomas’s son
d) Arriving to school late
26. a) Write the doctor a check.
b) Examine the doctor’s throat.
c) Go to the doctor for an examination.
d) Bring the woman to the doctor.
27. a) They are out of time
b) They are out of money
c) They don’t have enough time or money to see a movie
d) They saw a bad movie
28. a) His old boss
b) A man from a computer company
c) An old friend
d) A school teacher
29. a) The chair isn’t worth fixing
b) She doesn’t know what is wrong with the chair
c) The carpenter got lost coming over to fix the chair
d) The carpenter does not know how to fix the chair.
30. a) She wants to catch the flu
b) Jim is lucky to be sick
c) She is not looking forward to the meeting
d) It would be nice if everyone were as lucky as Jim.
Directions: In Part B you will hear longer conversations. You will hear several questions after each conversation. Neither the conversations nor the questions will be repeated.
After you hear the question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose the best answer. Finally, find the number of the question on your answer sheet and shade in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Remember, you should not take notes or write on your test pages.
31. a) America’s job situation
b) Minimum wage
c) The President’s speech
d) The economy
32. a) There are too few.
b) They don’t pay much.
c) They are only for the upper class.
d) They are only for the lower class.
33. a) An economics journal
b) The President’s speech
c) The news
d) The newspaper
34. a) It makes raising status difficult for the lower class.
b) It results in a two-tiered society.
c) It determines minimum wage.
d) It leads to class inequality.
35. a) They enjoy television.
b) They enjoy video games.
c) They are parents.
d) They don’t like movies
36. a) They are a positive influence.
b) They are not a positive influence.
c) She hasn’t seen one so she doesn’t know.
d) She agrees with other people’s opinions about the games.
37. a) He threw the games in the sink.
b) He doesn’t own a TV
c) He teaches his children how to play games.
d) He does not allow video games in the house.
38. a) The games are outrageous.
b) Other parents encourage the use of these games
c) The children want to fit in with their friends.
d) Peer pressure.
Directions: In Part C, you will hear several talks. You will hear some questions after each talk. Neither the talks nor the questions will be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose the best answer. Finally, find the number of the question on your answer sheet, and shade in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Listen to an example.
On the recording, you hear:
Now listen to a sample question.
In your book you read:
The best answer to the question, “What does this talk concern?” is :(d), “An obituary.”
Therefore, the correct choice is: (d)
Now listen to another sample question.
In your book you read:
The best answer to the question, “What is Gene Kelly most remembered for?” is (c) “His dancing.”
Therefore, the correct choice is: (c)
Remember, you should not take notes or write on your test pages.
39. a) Snakes should be avoided.
b) Medical treatment should be sought soon after biting occurs.
c) Antivenin is the best treatment for snake bites.
d) Electric shock is a good first-aid technique.
40. a) A type of snake.
b) A first-aid technique.
c) A branch of the Red Cross.
d) A surgical procedure.
41. a) It could send the victim into shock.
b) Doctors don’t agree upon the procedure.
c) It could be harmful to the victim.
d) Only a doctor should administer ice to a snake bite.
42. a) Wash the bite and immobilize the limb.
b) Call the doctor.
c) Make an incision into the wound.
d) Wait to see if there is any reaction to the bite.
43. a) The effects of MSG on health.
b) How to study the effects of MSG on health.
c) The uses of MSG.
d) Illnesses that are caused by consuming MSG
44. a) Curing heart disease
b) A substitute for salt
c) Make food taste better
d) Create jobs for scientists
45. a) MSG has no medicinal value.
b) MSG has medicinal value.
c) MSG is linked to birth defects.
d) MSG is safe for consumption at average levels.
46. a) Some people develop health problems from MSG.
b) MSG is hazardous to health.
c) Scientists found nothing new.
d) MSG is better for your health than glutamic acid.
47. a) Religiously strict.
b) Good hunters.
c) Diverse.
d) Antagonistic towards Europeans.
48. a) With prison time.
b) With hard labor.
c) With death.
d) Through confiscating land
49. a) The Aztecs’ religious beliefs.
b) The stressed relations between Indian tribes.
c) Their weapons.
d) The reservation plan.
50. a) In Colombian societies.
b) In North America.
c) In Europe.
d) On reservations.
Section 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Time: 25 minutes
This section of the test will gauge your competence in recognizing language that is grammatically suitable for standard written American English.
STRUCTURE – PART A
Questions 1 – 15
Directions: In this part of section 2 you will see incomplete sentences with four words or phrases marked (A), (B), (C), and (D) below each sentence. You must choose the correct word or phrase which best completes the sentence and shade in the corresponding space on your answer sheet.
Example I
________Woodrow Wilson tried to find an honorable alternative to war, the United States declared war on Germany in April 1917.
The sentence ought to read:
‘Although Woodrow Wilson tried to find an honorable alternative to war, the United States declared war on Germany in April 1917.’
Therefore you should choose answer (D).
Example II
T.S. Eliot was born in St. Louis, Missouri and __________, but later became a British citizen.
The sentence ought to read:
T.S. Eliot was born in St. Louis, Missouri and educated at Harvard, but later became a British citizen.
Therefore you should choose answer (B).
PRACTICE TEST 4 – Section 2
GRAMMAR – PART A
1. ————-experimental studies of the aging process, psychologist Ross McFarland determined
that people could work productively much longer than had previously thought.
(A) In that
(B) Through
(C) Since
(D) Into
2. ______succeeding J F Kennedy as President of the United States, Lyndon Johnson declined
to stand for reelection.
(A) His
(B) Despite
(C) Although
(D) Because
3. Ozone is formed in the atmosphere ___action on oxygen of short wavelength ultraviolet light.
(A) because the
(B) by the
(C) of the
(D) there is the
4. A sparrow has more bones in its neck than _____
(A) a giraffe has.
(B) a giraffe does.
(C) the giraffe.
(D) has a giraffe.
5. Deoxyribonucleic acid is the most important substance____ nucleic acids.
(A) among
(B) and
(C) but
(D) between
6. X-rays _____ by Professor Rontgen in 1895.
(A) discovered
(B) discovering
(C) are discovered
(D) were discovered
7. Treatment for cancer includes ______radiotherapy and chemotherapy.
(A) but
(B) both
(C) even though
(D) not only
8. _____the magnitude of an earthquake, the Richter scale is commonly used.
9. The surface of the earth is scarred by fewer meteorite craters than ____the surface of the moon.
(A) it is
(B) on
(C) is
(D) it is on
10. Igor Stravinski is the _______
(A) most famous US citizen of all composers.
(B) composer of most famous of all US citizens.
(C) the most famous composer of all US citizens.
(D) composer most famous of all US citizens.
11. Not until the invention of the electric motor_______
(A) automotive submarine travel became feasible.
(B) automotive submarine travel had become feasible.
(C) did automotive submarine travel become feasible.
(D) became feasible automotive submarine travel.
12. Regarded as one of the world’s most influential film directors, ____in the early 1900s
(A) as a theater-owner Louis Mayer began his career
(B) Louis Mayer began his career as a theater-owner
(C) the career of Louis Mayer began as a theater-owner
(D) Louis Mayer’s career as a theater-owner began
13. Henry Fielding’s individual genius at narrative influenced the form and technique of the
novel and ____to make it the most popular form of literature in the English-speaking world.
14. Iodine is a halogen, a nonmetallic element _____, forms a salt similar to common salt.
(A) which is in union with a metal
(B) which, in union with a metal
(C) is in union with a metal
(D) in union with a metal
15. A deciduous tree has leaves______
(A) which it is annual sheds.
(B) whose sheds it annually.
(C) which it sheds annually.
(D) which sheds it annually.
WRITTEN EXPRESSION
PART B
Questions 16 – 40
Directions: In this part of Section 2 you will read one sentence for each question. In each sentence four words or phrases have been underlined and marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). You must choose the corresponding space on your answer sheet.
Example I
Earthquakes in the Japan cause great hardship for many people.
A B C D
The sentence ought to read:
‘Earthquakes in Japan cause great hardship for many people’.
Therefore, you should choose (B).
Example II
Compared by normal anxiety, a phobia is both excessive and irrational.
A B C D
The sentence ought to read:
‘Compared with normal anxiety, a phobia is both excessive and irrational.’
Therefore, you should choose (A)
16. Although cactus are found in hot, arid deserts, some are suitable to pot culture in cold
A B C D
climates.
17. A cerebral hemorrhage is caused by factors such as high blood pressure and hardening of the
A B C
arteries, or chronic poisoning with lead and alcohol.
D
18. There were many stripes in the flag of the United States in 1800 than there are today.
A B C D
19. A good paramedic is well-trained and has a calm and comfortably manner.
A B C D
20. Los Angeles have a population of over three million inhabitants.
A B C D
21. Certain cosmic rays, which possess energy equivalent to 100 billion times the mass of a
A B
proton, travels close to the speed of light.
C D
22. Psychiatrists suffer from the repression of painful memories as much as anyone else do.
A B C D
23. Nicolaus Copernicus was a Polish astronomer and the founder of astronomy as the solar
A B
system was understood today.
C D
24. A gorilla has three caudal vertebrae compared to a human’s four.
A B C D
25. Shooting stars are particles of dust that burn up in entering the earth’s atmosphere.
A B C D
26. Schoffer’s improvement of Gutenberg’s printing technique resulted in copper characters that
A B C
were more precise and more resistance to wear.
D
27. Funerals are macabre ceremonies involved with the burying or burning of dying people.
A B C D
28. The Alexandrian pharos, the world’s first lighthouse, is destroyed by an earthquake.
A B C D
29. The lakes of North America are large, but not as large as that in Asia.
A B C D
30. Aboard passengers on a plane have to be familiarized with the emergency procedures.
A B C D
31. Diaries and journals writing during Colonial times provide the best records of that era.
A B C D
32. Gold topaz is much rare than either white or blue topaz.
A B C D
33. Every human tooth have a central channel containing nerves and blood vessels.
A B C D
34. A lobotomy may alleviate the condition of patients with severe depressives, anxiety
A B
states or obsessive-compulsive disorders.
. C D
35. Stephen Hawking is considered one of the greatest modern genius of astrophysics.
A B C D
36. A mosaic is picture made from small bits of colored glass or tile.
A B C D
37. Reclamation is the successful attempt to make deserts, marshlands, or other unusable land
A B
suitable of farming or building.
C D
38. Benign man, pursuing and haunted by his own evil, is a well-known subject in fiction.
A B C D
39. Fossil mammoth ivory was previously so abundant that it has been exported from Siberia to
A B C
China and Europe since medieval times.
D
40. A successful salesperson must have an intuitive understanding of psychology human.
A B C D
Time: 55 minutes
This section is designed to measure your ability to read and understand short passages similar in topic and style to those that students are likely to encounter in North American universities and colleges.
This section contains reading passages and questions about the passages.
Directions: In the Reading Comprehension section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by a number of questions about it. You are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question and shade in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions about the information in the passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
Read the following passage:
(5) | In biological terms, aging is the entire life-process, beginning at the moment when an egg is fertilized and starts to develop into a new individual, and continuing to its eventual death. Three current theories attempt to account for aging. The first suggests that the process is genetically determined to remove individuals that can no longer reproduce by causing their death. The second suggests that it is due to the accumulation of mistakes during the replication of DNA at cell division. The third suggests that it is actively induced by pieces of DNA which move between cells, or cancer-causing viruses; these many become abundant in old cells and induce them to produce unwanted proteins or interfere with the control functions of their DNA. |
Example I
What is the main idea of the passage?
(A) Individuals that can no longer reproduce die.
(B) A biological definition of death.
(C) Biological theories about aging.
(D) Biological conditions that cause aging.
The main idea of the passage concerns three biological theories about the causes of aging. Therefore, you should choose (C ).
Example: II
In line 7, the word ‘these’ refers to:
(A) old cells
(B) cancer-causing viruses
(C) unwanted proteins
(D) control functions
The word ‘these’ refers to the preceding phrase, “cancer-causing viruses”.
Therefore, you should choose ( B ).
Now begin work on the questions.
Questions 1 – 10
(5) (10) (15) (20) | By the mid-nineteenth century some American artists had mastered the traditional techniques of painting, but many still looked to Europe for esthetic models and felt obliged to study there. Some became expatriates. Winslow Homer was one of the first American painters to demonstrate that the environment of the United States was conducive to first-class artists. Unlike Albert Ryder, the brilliant romantic painter who became a recluse in his later years, Homer was a well-traveled artist of the realist school. Yet, despite his travels to Canada, the West Indies and Europe, he rejected Impressionism which was fashionable in Europe at that time and developed a symbolic realism that surpassed anything produced in America previously. Although Homer was contemptuous of academicians and refused to go abroad to study, he spent two years in northern England, and painted local fishermen and their families on the North Sea coast near the Tyne River. The sea was the most common theme of his works. On returning to the United States in 1883, he left New York for a remote peninsula on the coast of Maine so he could concentrate on his main protagonist, the ocean. Born in Boston in 1836, he began his career as an apprentice to a lithographic printer. Since his skill as a draftsman and lithographer was evident, two years later, in 1859, he became a freelance illustrator. He later worked as an artist-reporter for Harper’s Weekly during the Civil War, and continued to do magazine illustrations for some years afterward. He soon became a master of the watercolor medium, and in the late 1870s portrayed life in the South after the abolition of slavery. The theme of death was often implied in his works, but usually only as a possible outcome rather than an imminent certainty, as in The Life Line ( 1884 ), Fox Hunt (1893), and Gulf Stream (1899). When asked about the fate of his subjects, he would often reply that they escaped to live happily ever after. Toward the end of his life, he stopped painting people struggling heroically against the elements and turned to portraying the power of the sea with its formidable waves crashing against the coast, characterizing nature as an invincible force. |
Questions 11 – 21
(5) (10) (15) (20) | An ice age is any period of glaciation occurring in the earth’s history, but most commonly in the Pleistocene period, immediately preceding historic times. During an ice age, which can last for thousands, or even millions, of years, huge ice sheets cover large areas of the earth’s surface. The occurrence of an ice age is governed by a combination of factors. Firstly, it depends on the angle at which the earth tilts in relation to the sun during a 41,000-year cycle, making its closest approach come at different seasons. Secondly, it is influenced by the eccentricity of the earth’s orbit around the sun. Every 92,000 years this orbit varies from elliptical to near circular, the severest period of an ice age coinciding with the approach to circularity. The first ice age is believed to have occurred approximately 2.5 billion years ago during the Precambrian era. It was followed by ice ages during the Ordovician period, 450 million years ago, and during the Carboniferous period, 360 million years ago. Rocks formed during the late Carboniferous and early Permian periods, 280 million years ago, in South America, South Asia, Africa and Australia show evidence of glaciations. The most recent ice age, known as the Pleistocene Ice Age, reached its maximum extent around 6,000 years ago. During this time, often referred to as the Ice Age, sheets of ice up to 3,000 meters thick extended about 1,500 kilometers southward, as far as the Great Lakes in North America and Switzerland in Europe. At their furthest extent the sheets used up so much water that the depth of the oceans fell by almost 100 meters. They had acted like huge bulldozers, leveling hills and digging out ridges, clefts and hollows in the earth’s surface. As the ice receded it melted and filled these excavations, thus forming the Great Lakes of North America and the fiords and lakes of Scandinavia. It is possible that this most recent ice age is not yet over and that the present time is part of a period known as an interglacial, a period between ice ages when temperatures increase, ice melts and sea levels rise. Thus, this ice age may reach another maximum in approximately 60,000 years. |
(A) The history of ice ages.
(B) The Pleistocene Ice Age.
(C) The origins of the Ice Age.
(D) Glaciations and interglacial.
formed from:
Questions 23 – 33
(5) (10) (15) (20) (25) | Between the constellations of Aquila and Sagitta is a weird astronomical object known as a binary pulsar. It apparently consists of two imploded stars in close orbit about one another. The stars are believed to be so compact that even their atoms have collapsed into neutrons under their own weight in the intense gravity. As a result of the enormous compaction, the stars are barely a few miles across, and they can rotate several times a second at tremendous speeds. One of the stars is evidently surrounded by a magnetic field, for every time it rotates it emits a pulse of radio waves: hence the name pulsar. For the last few years these blips have been monitored by astronomers from the giant radio telescope at Arecibo in Puerto Rico. The regularity of the neutron star’s rotation is reflected in the precise regularity of the pulses, which can therefore be used as an accurate star clock, as well as allowing the motion of the star to be followed. The regularity of the pulses provides a graphic illustration of the inadequacy of commonsense time. Being so massive and so close together, the two neutron stars dance around each other at phenomenal speed, taking only eight hours to complete one orbital revolution. Thus one year lasts only eight hours. The pulsar therefore moves at a good fraction of the speed of light, which is the same as the speed of the radio pulses. As the pulsar orbits round its companion it sometimes approaches the Earth and sometimes recedes, depending on its momentary direction of motion. Common sense would suggest that when the pulsar approaches, its radio pulses are speeded up, because they receive an extra push in the direction of the Earth. Similarly, the pulses from the pulsar when it is receding should be slowed down. This being the case, the former sequence of pulses should arrive long before the latter because they will cover the enormous intervening distance to Earth at a higher speed. Thus, the pulse arrivals should be a complicated muddle of approaching pulses from certain years having overtaken the receding pulses from previous years. Observations, however, show that the pulses from all the orbital positions arrive arranged neatly in the correct sequence. |
Questions 34 – 42
(5) (10) (15) (20) (25) | Just over a decade before his death on February 28, 1916, Henry James completed his last great novel The Golden Bowl. Like his previous two novels The Wings of the Dove and The Ambassadors, it dealt with the impact of sophisticated European culture on American society and contrasted the European and American character. Despite James’s misgivings about the corruption of Europe, he was not averse to using the heritage of the Old World to highlight what he saw as the main shortcoming of American society. Americans to him were like puppets who could be easily manipulated by the growing commercialism prevalent at the turn of the century and yet at the same time be made to feel delightfully free and easy. The Golden Bowl is his most intricate and polished critique against America’s burgeoning consumer culture. The massiveness of the novel conceals the simple narrative scheme. A wealthy expatriated American widower and his daughter find spouses: the former a charming American woman, the latter an equally charming Italian prince. These spouses, former lovers, encouraged by the renewed proximity and the apparent complacency of both father and daughter, resume their relationship. When the liaison is eventually discovered by Maggie, the widower’s daughter, she endeavours to isolate the lovers from each other and restore the forms, if not the substance, of her and her father’s marriages. In that the lovers are compelled to give up their illicit relationship in order to preserve their legitimate relationship of marriage, the novel is a work of symmetry. The novel opens and closes amid images of gold and booty. Maggie and her father are likened to pirates and her husband, to treasure. Thus, the prince feels that he is an object of purchase and consumption and he in turn becomes purchaser and consumer of Charlotte, his lover. Even Maggie’s father, an art collector, sees his daughter as a valuable antique. Charlotte bargains for Maggie’s silence before the legitimate relationships are restored, after which Maggie and her father take a final inventory of their possessions. In this novel James allowed the culture of consumption to permeate the substance and discourse, and produced one the most complex portraits of the phenomenology of American consumer culture. |
Questions 43 – 50
(5) (10) (15) (20) | As the cities of the United States expanded in the early and mid-nineteenth century, there came a need for organized urban transportation systems. The earliest form of passenger transportation was instituted in New York in 1832, with horse-drawn cars running along a network of tracks. Despite a number of shortcomings, by 1860 these horse cars carried over 100,000 passengers a day in New York alone. The major drawbacks were the costs of feeding and stabling the large number of horses needed and the pollution caused by the animals’ droppings littering the streets. An improved means of passenger transportation was installed in Richmond, Virginia, in 1887 by a retired naval officer, Frank Sprague. His implementation of the electric trolley car, which also ran along tracks, was a watershed in the development of urban passenger transportation. Cities from the Atlantic to the Pacific soon had tracks laid from the center to the suburbs and further. As lines radiated out from downtown areas, commuters and shoppers from residential districts began to frequent the business districts and department stores that were springing up. Prior to the introduction of the streetcar onto the streets of American cities, people had to live relatively close to their workplace. Thus the maximum distance a city could extend from its center was little more than three miles. With the advent of the streetcar this radius increased to around ten miles. As a result, villages became drawn into metropolitan areas and wealthy residents began to abandon the overcrowded central districts for peripheral towns that were more conducive to a healthy living environment. As the lines spread beyond the built-up areas, streetcars promoted the establishment of residential areas on land untouched by human development. In cooperation with building companies, streetcar operators ensured that middle class families were able to buy a detached home in a sanitary environment that was accessible from the city center. |
01 | A B C D | 26 | A B C D | 01 | A B C D | 21 | A B C D | 01 | A B C D | 26 | A B C D | |
02 | A B C D | 27 | A B C D | 02 | A B C D | 22 | A B C D | 02 | A B C D | 27 | A B C D | |
03 | A B C D | 28 | A B C D | 03 | A B C D | 23 | A B C D | 03 | A B C D | 28 | A B C D | |
04 | A B C D | 29 | A B C D | 04 | A B C D | 24 | A B C D | 04 | A B C D | 29 | A B C D | |
05 | A B C D | 30 | A B C D | 05 | A B C D | 25 | A B C D | 05 | A B C D | 30 | A B C D | |
06 | A B C D | 31 | A B C D | 06 | A B C D | 26 | A B C D | 06 | A B C D | 31 | A B C D | |
07 | A B C D | 32 | A B C D | 07 | A B C D | 27 | A B C D | 07 | A B C D | 32 | A B C D | |
08 | A B C D | 33 | A B C D | 08 | A B C D | 28 | A B C D | 08 | A B C D | 33 | A B C D | |
09 | A B C D | 34 | A B C D | 09 | A B C D | 29 | A B C D | 09 | A B C D | 34 | A B C D | |
10 | A B C D | 35 | A B C D | 10 | A B C D | 30 | A B C D | 10 | A B C D | 35 | A B C D | |
11 | A B C D | 36 | A B C D | 11 | A B C D | 31 | A B C D | 11 | A B C D | 36 | A B C D | |
12 | A B C D | 37 | A B C D | 12 | A B C D | 32 | A B C D | 12 | A B C D | 37 | A B C D | |
13 | A B C D | 38 | A B C D | 13 | A B C D | 33 | A B C D | 13 | A B C D | 38 | A B C D | |
14 | A B C D | 39 | A B C D | 14 | A B C D | 34 | A B C D | 14 | A B C D | 39 | A B C D | |
15 | A B C D | 40 | A B C D | 15 | A B C D | 35 | A B C D | 15 | A B C D | 40 | A B C D | |
16 | A B C D | 41 | A B C D | 16 | A B C D | 36 | A B C D | 16 | A B C D | 41 | A B C D | |
17 | A B C D | 42 | A B C D | 17 | A B C D | 37 | A B C D | 17 | A B C D | 42 | A B C D | |
18 | A B C D | 43 | A B C D | 18 | A B C D | 38 | A B C D | 18 | A B C D | 43 | A B C D | |
19 | A B C D | 44 | A B C D | 19 | A B C D | 39 | A B C D | 19 | A B C D | 44 | A B C D | |
20 | A B C D | 45 | A B C D | 20 | A B C D | 40 | A B C D | 20 | A B C D | 45 | A B C D | |
21 | A B C D | 46 | A B C D | 21 | A B C D | 46 | A B C D | |||||
22 | A B C D | 47 | A B C D | 22 | A B C D | 47 | A B C D | |||||
23 | A B C D | 48 | A B C D | 23 | A B C D | 48 | A B C D | |||||
24 | A B C D | 49 | A B C D | 24 | A B C D | 49 | A B C D | |||||
25 | A B C D | 50 | A B C D | 25 | A B C D | 50 | A B C D |
ANSWER KEY | |||||||||||
Section 1 | Section 2 | Section 3 | |||||||||
1 | A | 31 | A | 1 | B | 31 | B | 1 | C | 31 | B |
2 | C | 32 | B | 2 | B | 32 | A | 2 | D | 32 | B |
3 | B | 33 | D | 3 | B | 33 | B | 3 | C | 33 | A |
4 | C | 34 | A | 4 | B | 34 | B | 4 | C | 34 | C |
5 | A | 35 | C | 5 | A | 35 | C | 5 | B | 35 | C |
6 | B | 36 | B | 6 | D | 36 | A | 6 | A | 36 | A |
7 | C | 37 | D | 7 | B | 37 | C | 7 | C | 37 | B |
8 | D | 38 | C | 8 | C | 38 | B | 8 | B | 38 | C |
9 | B | 9 | C | 39 | B | 9 | B | 39 | C | ||
10 | A | 39 | B | 10 | C | 40 | D | 10 | C | 40 | A |
11 | D | 40 | D | 11 | C | 11 | D | ||||
12 | A | 41 | C | 12 | B | 12 | D | 41 | D | ||
13 | B | 42 | A | 13 | A | 13 | B | 42 | D | ||
14 | C | 43 | A | 14 | B | 14 | C | 43 | B | ||
15 | A | 44 | C | 15 | C | 15 | A | 44 | A | ||
16 | D | 45 | D | 16 | B | 45 | D | ||||
17 | B | 46 | A | 16 | A | 17 | B | 46 | D | ||
18 | B | 47 | A | 17 | D | 18 | B | 47 | A | ||
19 | D | 48 | C | 18 | A | 19 | D | 48 | C | ||
20 | C | 49 | B | 19 | D | 20 | D | 49 | B | ||
21 | D | 50 | D | 20 | A | 50 | C | ||||
22 | C | 21 | C | 21 | B | ||||||
23 | B | 22 | D | 22 | C | ||||||
24 | C | 23 | C | 23 | C | ||||||
25 | A | 24 | C | 24 | C | ||||||
26 | C | 25 | C | 25 | A | ||||||
27 | D | 26 | D | 26 | A | ||||||
28 | C | 27 | D | 27 | B | ||||||
29 | A | 28 | D | 28 | A | ||||||
30 | C | 29 | D | 29 | C | ||||||
30 | A | 30 | C | ||||||||
Test 4 – Part A
Example:
Woman: Boy it’s rough out there. I almost got into 3 accidents on a 15 minute drive.
Man A : People seem to forget how to drive when it snows.
Man B: What does the man mean?
1. WOMAN : Wow, there’s a lot of required reading in this course. Oh well, that’s all right.
MAN A: All right for you. You’re a bookworm.
Man B: What does the man imply?
2. WOMAN: I found a watch in the grass yesterday.
MAN A: That looks like the one I lost a week ago.
Man B: What does the man imply?
3. MAN A: Excuse me. How far is it to the nearest filling station?
WOMAN: I hope you’re not running too low because it is a long walk.
Man B: What does the woman imply?
4. MAN A: I’m starved!
WOMAN: Here try some of this. It doesn’t look like much but it’s filling.
Man B: What is the woman offering the man?
5. MAN A: Sorry I’m late. There was heavy traffic on the interstate.
WOMAN: Well, it’s the first time I’ve arrived at the party before the host!
Man B: What has happened?
6. WOMAN: I think I’ll make a batch of cookies.
MAN A: There’s only one egg left. I had two for breakfast this morning
Man B: What does the man imply?
7. MAN A: I need flour to make this recipe. Do you have some I could borrow?
WOMAN: I think I picked some up at the market yesterday.
Man B: What does the woman mean?
8. MAN A: This food is delicious.
WOMAN: You should stop and take a breath!
Man B: What does the woman imply?
9. MAN A: Have you seen that cookbook that I brought home last week? I need to get it
back to my boss.
WOMAN: I gave it to your sister.
Man B: Who does the book belong to?
10. WOMAN: The President’s speech was not well received.
MAN A: Nobody wants to hear that their taxes are going up.
Man B: What was the reaction to the President’s speech?
11. WOMAN: The food here isn’t what it used to be.
MAN A : We could try the new place down the street.
Man B: What does the man suggest?
13. MAN A: Carol is back from the hospital.
WOMAN: I really admire her. You’d never know that she’s suffering from cancer.
Man B: How does the woman feel about Carol?
14. MAN A: Just sign here, and I’ll get your receipt.
WOMAN: Do you have any gift boxes?
Man B: Where is this conversation taking place?
15. WOMAN : I’m so sorry, sir. I’m sure there won’t be a stain, but I will pay to have your
shirt cleaned.
MAN A: Next time watch where you’re going.
Man B: What happened?
16. WOMAN : I’m off! I’ll be back in about an hour.
MAN A: You’ll need to wear more than that – it’s cold outside.
Man B: What does the man suggest?
17. MAN A: I’d like two tickets please. Preferably near the front.
WOMAN: We’re all sold out.
Man B: What does the woman mean?
18. MAN A: What did you do yesterday?
WOMAN: I went biking with my cousin, we watched a movie and I drove her home
after dinner.
Man B: What did the woman do last?
19. WOMAN : I only asked for four.
MAN A: We have a special – if you buy two you get one free.
Man B: How many did the woman order?
20. MAN A: We don’t leave for another week. Why are you already packed?
WOMAN: I don’t like to wait until the last minute.
Man B: When do they leave?
21. WOMAN : What happened to the window?
MAN A: The boy next door threw a ball through it.
Man B: What is probably wrong with the window?
22. WOMAN : Is that the final draft of your paper?
MAN A: Yes. Would you like to read it?
Man B: What are they talking about?
23. MAN A: It’s bright out. I can’t drive without my sunglasses.
WOMAN: Here, I have an extra pair.
Man B: What did the woman offer the man?
24. WOMAN : I think they are serving fish tonight.
MAN A: Are you sure? I’m allergic to fish.
Man B: What is the man concerned about?
25. MAN A: Mrs. Thomas, are you aware that your son has been skipping school?
WOMAN: Johnny? Are you sure?
Man B: What has Johnny being doing?
26. MAN A: I need to go to the doctor and get my throat checked out.
WOMAN: I didn’t know you were sick.
Man B: What will the man do?
27. MAN A: That is the worst movie I’ve ever seen.
WOMAN: What a waste of time and money.
Man B: What are the two upset about?
28. MAN A: I received a call from an old high school friend. He wants to meet with me
tomorrow.
WOMAN: Isn’t tomorrow your big job interview with the CEO of that computer company?
Man B: Who called the man?
29. MAN A: This chair is in bad shape. Have you tried carpenter’s glue?
WOMAN: It’s a lost cause.
Man B: What did the woman mean?
30. MAN A: Jim called in sick with the flu. He’s going to miss the policy meeting.
WOMAN: We should all be so lucky.
Man B: What does the woman imply?
Test 4 – Part B
Questions 31 through 34.
MAN A : The President says that the unemployment rate is the lowest it’s been in four years.
WOMAN: That may be true but the number of Americans living under the poverty line has
climbed to more than 39 million. That’s 15% of the nation’s population. The
number of jobs available are increasing, but the wages are low.
MAN A: I noticed that most of the jobs listed in the paper barely pay above minimum wage.
WOMAN: Yeah, and because of this the medium income of Americans continues to decline
which could result in the demise of the middle class. If things keep going like they
are we could see our nation disintegrate into a two-tiered society of only upper and
lower class.
Man A: That could be dangerous. It’s been shown that in societies where such drastic economic inequalities exist the rich generally rule over the poor. This makes economic advancement almost impossible for the lower class.
31. MAN B: What is the topic of this discussion?
32. MAN B: What best describes the condition of today’s jobs?
33. MAN B: Where did the man get the wage information?
34. MAN B: Why is the man concerned about economic inequality?
Questions 35 through 38.
WOMAN: I tell you, I just can’t believe what’s out on the market today. My son brought home
a neighbor’s new video game and it was filled with sex, violence and death. It even shows blood splattering when someone gets killed.
MAN A: I know it. My wife and I have banned these games from our home.
WOMAN: I realize that there’s a great debate over the effects of these games on children’s behavior, but regardless of other people’s opinions I just can’t see this kind of thing as being positive influence.
MAN A: I agree. As parents it’s our responsibility to monitor what goes into our children to the best of our ability. I teach my children that it is wrong to kill, so I can’t see allowing them to play games in which decapitation and maiming are the primary objective.
WOMAN: Me neither. The problem is that these games are all the rage right now. My kids want to do what the other kids are doing. It’s hard to monitor what goes on when my kids are at someone else’s house.
MAN A: Well, we need to pray that what we teach them sinks in and guides them when they are out of our sight.
35. MAN B: What do the man and woman have in common?
36. MAN B: What’s the woman’s view on the effects of these games on children?
37. MAN B: How has the man resolved the problem in his house?
38. MAN B: Why is it difficult to keep the games from their children?
Test 4 – Part C
Example:
Gene Kelly – singer, dancer, actor and choreographer – died yesterday from complications resulting from a series of strokes. He was 83 years old.
Kelly’s film career spanned over 3 decades. Though his talents were many, Kelly will be remembered most for his dancing. He danced his way into our hearts through legendary movies such as “Singing in the Rain” and “American in Paris”. These, along with his many other films, will help keep Kelly’s memory alive for decades to come.
What does this talk concern?
What is Gene Kelly most remembered for?
Questions 39 through 42 refer to the following talk.
Woman: Approximately 8,000 people receive venomous snake bites in the United States per year and nine to fifteen of these victims die. Health-care professionals disagree about the best way to manage these cases, but they all concur that a person should seek prompt medical treatment for any snake bite whether they believe it to be poisonous or not. Some physicians prefer to observe the patients for a period of time to gauge a bite’s seriousness before initiating treatment. Most often doctors use antivenin – an antidote for snake venom – to treat serious snake bites, though others do a fasciotomy – which is a surgical treatment of the tissue around the bite.
For years people have been administering treatments for snake bites that medical professionals believe to be potentially harmful. These include putting ice or any other cooling agent on the bite, using a tourniquet to immobilize the limb, administering electrical shock or making an incision into the wound. According to the American Red Cross, just a few basic first-aid techniques should be taken before seeking medical help. You should first wash the bite with soap and water and then immobilize the bitten area and keep it lower than the heart.
39. Man B: Upon what do health professionals agree?
40. Man B: What is a ‘fasciotomy’?
41. Man B: Why shouldn’t ice be administered to a snake bite?
42. Man B: What does the Red Cross suggest be done before seeking medical treatment?
Questions 43 through 46 refer to the following talk.
Man A: Monosodium glutamate, popularly known as MSG, has been in the throes of controversy for decades over its potentially harmful health affects. MSG is derived from glutamic acid and is often added to food to enhance its flavor. The FDA sponsored extensive reviews of MSG and other related substances in 1978 and 1980. Both reviews concluded that MSG is safe for the general public at common use levels; however, they noted that additional data was needed to judge whether a significant increase in glutamate consumption can cause adverse effects.
A recently updated FDA report, filed by a panel of experts convened by the Federation of American Societies for Experimental Biology, cited no evidence linking MSG to any serious, long term medical problems in the general population. They did find evidence suggesting that certain people may develop short-term reactions when they consume large doses of MSG or related glutamates. These symptoms were not linked to low levels of glutamate consumption.
43. Man B: What is the main topic of this talk?
44. Man B: What is MSG used for?
45. Man B: What were the findings from earlier tests done by the FDA?
46. Man B: What were the findings from the most recent tests?
Questions 47 through 50 refer to the following talk.
Man A: The warrior was the central figure in the majority of pre-Columbian societies. The Aztecs, the dominant people of Central America, were excessively puritanical. It was considered evil for a warrior to exhibit any interest in women and adultery was a shameful crime punishable by death. However, to die in battle was the supreme purification. While other tribes did not share the rigor of the Aztecs, the importance of the warrior cannot be gainsaid. The Plains Indian of North America, for example, insisted upon both fasting and sexual continence before a band of warriors set out for either hunting or war.
In the seventeenth century there existed more than two thousand independent Indian tribes in North America when the systematic settlement from Europe was beginning. Many of these tribes were sworn enemies, a state of affairs the European immigrants turned to their own advantage. This factor, along with their being such diversity among the Indian peoples themselves, worked against the effectiveness of the Indian warriors in protecting their homeland. Today, many of the surviving Indian tribes live on reservations. The warrior is now only a memory.
47. Man B: Which of the following best describes the Aztecs?
48. Man B: How was adultery punished within the Aztec society?
49. Man B: What did the European immigrant use to their advantage?
50. Man B: Where do many of the remaining Indians reside?